Combine that with the questionable decision to account for probation/acquittal simply as zero as well as some other questionable assumptions they made and the fact that the study as written makes it difficult to decipher how/why they addressed variables as they did, and I don't know if we're looking at statistical noise or something meaningful.
Regardless, while the "marginal indigence" theory has at least some intuitive appeal, it seems quite a stretch to suggest that this is a major factor in the discrepancy. It seems worthy of mention as a possible contributor, but they give it surprising (and I think unsubstantiated) weight in the study as well as the op-ed.
Even if their analysis is correct and statistically meaningful, I did not read anything that convinced me that the discrepancy is not due to more conventional assumptions. To go so far as to conclude the op-ed with the suggestion of tightening indigency parameters seems irresponsible.
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